I have a 60 year old male patient with a grossly decayed #47 that is treatment planned for extraction. The roots are fused and there is a bone defect and lesion on the mesial side. Should I do an immediate or delayed implant in this case? If delayed, how long should I wait? Where should I place the implant – to the mesial, distal or center of the site? Do you recommend a graft, and if so, what kind of graft? What are your recommendations?
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